AirworthyPrivate Pilot
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Regulations

All 61 questions in this topic, free — with answers, explanations, and the official source for each.

  1. Question 1

    What is the minimum age to be issued a Private Pilot certificate for an airplane?

    • A.14
    • B.15
    • C.16
    • D.17
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: D. 17

    Per §61.103, an applicant must be at least 17 years old for a Private Pilot certificate in the airplane category (16 for glider or balloon).

  2. Question 2

    A Private Pilot applicant for an airplane single-engine land rating must have at least how many total flight hours?

    • A.30
    • B.35
    • C.40
    • D.50
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. 40

    Part 61.109(a) requires 40 total flight hours — 20 dual instruction and 10 solo — with additional specific cross-country, night, and test prep requirements.

  3. Question 3

    Which medical certificate is the minimum required to exercise Private Pilot privileges?

    • A.First-Class only
    • B.Second-Class only
    • C.Third-Class (or BasicMed if eligible)
    • D.No medical is required
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. Third-Class (or BasicMed if eligible)

    Private Pilot privileges require at least a Third-Class medical certificate — or BasicMed if all BasicMed eligibility requirements are met.

  4. Question 4

    A 35-year-old pilot receives a Third-Class medical certificate. How long is it valid for Private Pilot privileges?

    • A.12 calendar months
    • B.24 calendar months
    • C.36 calendar months
    • D.60 calendar months
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: D. 60 calendar months

    Under §61.23, a Third-Class medical for a pilot under 40 is valid 60 calendar months for operations requiring a Private Pilot medical.

  5. Question 5

    A 45-year-old pilot receives a Third-Class medical. How long is it valid for Private Pilot privileges?

    • A.12 calendar months
    • B.24 calendar months
    • C.36 calendar months
    • D.60 calendar months
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 24 calendar months

    For pilots age 40 or older, Third-Class medicals are valid 24 calendar months for Private Pilot operations (§61.23).

  6. Question 6

    To meet the solo cross-country requirement for a Private Pilot certificate (airplane), an applicant must accomplish one cross-country flight of at least:

    • A.100 nautical miles total with two landings
    • B.150 nautical miles total with three full-stop landings at three points
    • C.200 nautical miles with one full-stop landing
    • D.250 nautical miles with two landings
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 150 nautical miles total with three full-stop landings at three points

    §61.109(a)(5)(ii) requires one solo cross-country flight of at least 150 NM total, with full-stop landings at three points — with one leg of at least 50 NM straight-line distance between takeoff and landing.

  7. Question 7

    The FAA knowledge test passing score is:

    • A.60%
    • B.65%
    • C.70%
    • D.75%
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. 70%

    FAA airman knowledge tests require a minimum score of 70% to pass.

  8. Question 8

    A Private Pilot may NOT act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire, EXCEPT:

    • A.Private Pilots may never be compensated in any way
    • B.Pro-rata sharing of operating expenses (fuel, oil, airport fees, rental) with passengers
    • C.Full reimbursement if authorized by the passengers
    • D.Tips, if the passengers freely offer them
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Pro-rata sharing of operating expenses (fuel, oil, airport fees, rental) with passengers

    §61.113 permits only pro-rata sharing of operating expenses (fuel, oil, airport fees, and rental fees) with passengers, and a few narrowly defined exceptions.

  9. Question 9

    A Private Pilot wishing to continue exercising PIC privileges must have a flight review within the preceding:

    • A.6 calendar months
    • B.12 calendar months
    • C.24 calendar months
    • D.36 calendar months
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. 24 calendar months

    §61.56 requires a flight review (minimum 1 hour ground + 1 hour flight) every 24 calendar months.

  10. Question 10

    To act as PIC carrying passengers during the day, a pilot must have made within the preceding 90 days at least:

    • A.1 takeoff and 1 landing
    • B.3 takeoffs and 3 landings
    • C.5 takeoffs and 5 landings
    • D.3 takeoffs and 3 full-stop landings
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 3 takeoffs and 3 landings

    §61.57 requires 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the preceding 90 days in the same category/class (and type, if a type rating is required). Landings for day passenger currency do not need to be full-stop.

  11. Question 11

    Who is directly responsible for, and the final authority as to, the operation of the aircraft?

    • A.The dispatcher
    • B.The pilot in command
    • C.The owner of the aircraft
    • D.The manufacturer
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. The pilot in command

    §91.3(a) — The pilot in command is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

  12. Question 12

    Over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, no person may operate an aircraft closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

    • A.500 feet horizontal
    • B.1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-ft horizontal radius
    • C.2,000 feet AGL
    • D.500 feet AGL
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a 2,000-ft horizontal radius

    §91.119(b): over congested areas, at least 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft.

  13. Question 13

    Over other than a congested area, the minimum safe altitude is:

    • A.500 ft AGL, except over sparsely populated areas or open water
    • B.1,000 ft AGL
    • C.Clear of obstacles
    • D.2,000 ft AGL
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. 500 ft AGL, except over sparsely populated areas or open water

    §91.119(c): 500 ft AGL, except over open water or sparsely populated areas, where no person, vessel, vehicle, or structure may be closer than 500 ft.

  14. Question 14

    Two aircraft are converging at the same altitude; both are airplanes. Right of way belongs to:

    • A.The faster airplane
    • B.The airplane being overtaken
    • C.The airplane on the right
    • D.Whichever makes first radio contact
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. The airplane on the right

    §91.113 — when two aircraft of the same category are converging, the one on the right has the right of way.

  15. Question 15

    When two aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly so, each pilot shall:

    • A.Turn left
    • B.Turn right
    • C.Turn whichever way is clear
    • D.Descend
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Turn right

    §91.113(e): in head-on or nearly head-on situations, each pilot alters course to the right.

  16. Question 16

    Which aircraft has right-of-way over all other air traffic?

    • A.Aircraft declaring minimum fuel
    • B.Aircraft in distress
    • C.Aircraft on instrument flight plan
    • D.Balloon
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Aircraft in distress

    §91.113(c): an aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic.

  17. Question 17

    No person may act as PIC or other required flight crewmember within what period of having consumed alcohol?

    • A.4 hours
    • B.8 hours
    • C.12 hours
    • D.24 hours
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 8 hours

    §91.17: 8 hours from bottle to throttle; also no flying while under the influence or with a BAC ≥ 0.04%.

  18. Question 18

    Safety belts must be fastened for each occupant during:

    • A.Takeoff and landing only
    • B.Takeoff, landing, and during taxi
    • C.Movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing
    • D.The entire flight
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. Movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing

    §91.107 — during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing. Shoulder harnesses are required for takeoff and landing at each position where installed.

  19. Question 19

    Preflight action for a flight not in the vicinity of an airport must include:

    • A.Only a weather check
    • B.Runway lengths at airports of intended use and alternatives
    • C.Only a fuel calculation
    • D.Nothing beyond what you remember from training
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Runway lengths at airports of intended use and alternatives

    §91.103 — preflight must include, for any flight, applicable weather; and for flights not in the local area, fuel requirements, alternatives, runway lengths, takeoff/landing distance data.

  20. Question 20

    When flying below 18,000 ft MSL, how often must the altimeter setting be updated?

    • A.Once per hour
    • B.When ATC assigns a new one
    • C.Set to current reporting station within 100 NM; adjust as you progress
    • D.Once per flight
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. Set to current reporting station within 100 NM; adjust as you progress

    §91.121 requires altimeter set to current reporting station along the route within 100 NM; if no station, the departure elevation.

  21. Question 21

    A pilot deviates from a regulation to meet an in-flight emergency. If requested by the Administrator:

    • A.The pilot must explain only verbally
    • B.The pilot must send a written report
    • C.No report is needed
    • D.The FAA reviews the flight data automatically
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. The pilot must send a written report

    §91.3(c) — if the Administrator so requests, the PIC must send a written report within a reasonable time.

  22. Question 22

    A written NTSB accident report must be filed within what time after an accident?

    • A.48 hours
    • B.7 days
    • C.10 days
    • D.30 days
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. 10 days

    49 CFR Part 830.15: the operator must file a written report within 10 days of an accident (or within 7 days if a missing aircraft is still overdue).

  23. Question 23

    A pilot wishes to operate under BasicMed. Which is NOT a BasicMed eligibility requirement?

    • A.Hold a current driver's license
    • B.Has held an FAA medical certificate at any time after July 15, 2006
    • C.Hold at least a current Third-Class medical certificate
    • D.Complete a BasicMed medical exam every 48 months with a state-licensed physician
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. Hold at least a current Third-Class medical certificate

    BasicMed does NOT require a current FAA medical — it replaces the requirement. Pilot must have held an FAA medical at any time after July 15, 2006 (§61.113, §68).

  24. Question 24

    Under BasicMed, how often must a pilot complete the online medical education course?

    • A.Every 12 calendar months
    • B.Every 24 calendar months
    • C.Every 48 months
    • D.Once only
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Every 24 calendar months

    §68.3 — BasicMed requires completion of the free online medical education course every 24 calendar months; physician exam every 48 months.

  25. Question 25

    Which is a BasicMed operational limitation?

    • A.Maximum 5 passengers (6 occupants total), ≤ 6,000 lb aircraft, below 18,000 ft MSL, less than 250 kt
    • B.Only daytime flight
    • C.VFR only
    • D.No passengers
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Maximum 5 passengers (6 occupants total), ≤ 6,000 lb aircraft, below 18,000 ft MSL, less than 250 kt

    §61.113(i) — ≤6 occupants (including PIC), aircraft ≤6,000 lb MGTOW, below 18,000 ft MSL, less than 250 kt indicated.

  26. Question 26

    How long must a Private Pilot's logbook be retained?

    • A.1 year after the pilot's most recent endorsement
    • B.Logbooks must be retained to document aeronautical experience (e.g., for flight reviews, certificate applications) — there is no set retention; best practice is to keep permanently
    • C.5 years
    • D.Only until the next flight review
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Logbooks must be retained to document aeronautical experience (e.g., for flight reviews, certificate applications) — there is no set retention; best practice is to keep permanently

    §61.51 requires logging specific flight experience; the logbook itself has no fixed retention period, but must be available to document recency, endorsements, and aeronautical experience.

  27. Question 27

    A Private Pilot demonstrating or showing an aircraft for sale to a prospective buyer is:

    • A.Prohibited under §61.113
    • B.Permitted if the pilot has logged at least 200 hours and the flight is incidental to the sale
    • C.Only permitted with a commercial certificate
    • D.Permitted without restriction
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Permitted if the pilot has logged at least 200 hours and the flight is incidental to the sale

    §61.113(e) — a Private Pilot with at least 200 hours total may demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer, if the flight is incidental to the sale.

  28. Question 28

    Which is NOT a privilege of a Private Pilot certificate?

    • A.Act as PIC in connection with a business, if the flight is incidental to that business
    • B.Share operating expenses pro-rata with passengers
    • C.Act as PIC of a charitable airlift flight with required documentation
    • D.Act as PIC for hire to transport passengers
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: D. Act as PIC for hire to transport passengers

    §61.113 prohibits acting as PIC for compensation or hire to carry passengers or property. The other three are permitted (subject to conditions).

  29. Question 29

    Night flight experience required for a Private Pilot — Airplane certificate includes:

    • A.No night experience required
    • B.3 hours of night flight training, one cross-country >100 NM total distance, and 10 night takeoffs and 10 full-stop landings (each involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport
    • C.5 hours of solo night
    • D.5 night landings
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 3 hours of night flight training, one cross-country >100 NM total distance, and 10 night takeoffs and 10 full-stop landings (each involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport

    §61.109(a)(2) — 3 hours of night flight training including one cross-country flight of over 100 NM total distance and 10 takeoffs and 10 landings to a full stop (each involving a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airport. The regulation does not require a towered airport.

  30. Question 30

    Instrument flight training required for a Private Pilot — Airplane certificate is:

    • A.None
    • B.3 hours of instrument flight training (control and maneuvering solely by reference to instruments)
    • C.10 hours
    • D.40 hours
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 3 hours of instrument flight training (control and maneuvering solely by reference to instruments)

    §61.109(a)(3) — 3 hours of instrument flight training in a single-engine airplane.

  31. Question 31

    Under §61.56, a flight review must consist of at least:

    • A.2 hours ground, 2 hours flight
    • B.1 hour ground instruction and 1 hour flight training
    • C.30 minutes ground, 30 minutes flight
    • D.Entirely at the pilot's discretion
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 1 hour ground instruction and 1 hour flight training

    §61.56: minimum 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour of ground training.

  32. Question 32

    A flight review is NOT required if within the prior 24 calendar months the pilot has:

    • A.Only flown a new aircraft type
    • B.Passed a pilot proficiency check for a certificate or rating
    • C.Logged 100 hours
    • D.Completed a PPL written test
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Passed a pilot proficiency check for a certificate or rating

    §61.56(c) — passing a pilot proficiency check for a pilot certificate, rating, or operating privilege within the preceding 24 calendar months satisfies the flight review requirement.

  33. Question 33

    Maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000 ft MSL is:

    • A.180 kt
    • B.200 kt
    • C.250 kt
    • D.288 kt
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: C. 250 kt

    §91.117(a) — no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kt.

  34. Question 34

    Maximum indicated airspeed UNDERNEATH a Class B shelf, or in a VFR corridor through Class B, is:

    • A.150 kt
    • B.200 kt
    • C.250 kt
    • D.No limit
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 200 kt

    §91.117(c) — 200 kt indicated underneath a Class B airspace shelf designated for an airport, or in a VFR corridor through Class B. INSIDE Class B the 250 kt limit (below 10,000 ft MSL) still applies.

  35. Question 35

    Maximum indicated airspeed within 4 NM of a Class C/D airport below 2,500 ft AGL (at the primary airport) is:

    • A.150 kt
    • B.200 kt
    • C.250 kt
    • D.No limit
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 200 kt

    §91.117(b) — 200 kt indicated within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or D at or below 2,500 ft AGL.

  36. Question 36

    Required equipment for VFR day (powered airplane) per §91.205 does NOT include:

    • A.Airspeed indicator
    • B.Altimeter
    • C.Magnetic direction indicator
    • D.Attitude indicator
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: D. Attitude indicator

    VFR day (§91.205(b)) does not require an attitude indicator. It IS required for VFR night and IFR. (Mnemonic: A TOMATO FLAMES for day.)

  37. Question 37

    Required equipment for VFR NIGHT (in addition to day equipment) includes:

    • A.Autopilot
    • B.Fuses/circuit breakers (one set of spares or three of each kind), landing light (if for hire), anti-collision lights, position (nav) lights, source of electrical energy
    • C.GPS
    • D.Second altimeter
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Fuses/circuit breakers (one set of spares or three of each kind), landing light (if for hire), anti-collision lights, position (nav) lights, source of electrical energy

    §91.205(c) — FLAPS: Fuses, Landing light (if for hire), Anti-collision lights, Position lights, Source of electrical energy (plus a spare set of fuses).

  38. Question 38

    VFR cloud clearance in Class E airspace at or above 10,000 ft MSL and more than 1,200 AGL is:

    • A.500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal
    • B.1,000 below, 1,000 above, 1 SM horizontal — visibility 5 SM
    • C.Clear of clouds — 1 SM
    • D.3,000 in all directions
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. 1,000 below, 1,000 above, 1 SM horizontal — visibility 5 SM

    §91.155 — at or above 10,000 ft MSL: 5 SM visibility, 1,000 below / 1,000 above / 1 SM horizontal. The reason: high-speed traffic detection distance.

  39. Question 39

    Under §91.113, the aircraft with the RIGHT of way over all other engine-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft is:

    • A.The faster airplane
    • B.Balloon, glider, airship, then airplane/rotorcraft — roughly in order of maneuverability
    • C.Rotorcraft
    • D.Airship only
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Balloon, glider, airship, then airplane/rotorcraft — roughly in order of maneuverability

    §91.113(d) right-of-way order: 1) in distress, 2) balloon, 3) glider, 4) airship, 5) airplane/rotorcraft. Less-maneuverable aircraft get priority.

  40. Question 40

    Dropping an object from an aircraft (§91.15) is:

    • A.Always prohibited
    • B.Permitted if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage
    • C.Never permitted under Part 91
    • D.Permitted only at uncontrolled airports
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Permitted if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage

    §91.15 — no person may allow any object to be dropped from an aircraft that creates a hazard to persons or property. It's permitted with reasonable precautions.

  41. Question 41

    A pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance due to a TCAS/traffic-alert response must:

    • A.Never report it
    • B.Notify ATC as soon as practicable
    • C.File a written report within 5 days
    • D.Nothing — it's automatic
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Notify ATC as soon as practicable

    §91.123(c) — each pilot in command who, in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert, deviates from an ATC clearance shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.

  42. Question 42

    Required VOR receiver check period for IFR:

    • A.30 days
    • B.60 days
    • C.90 days
    • D.No check required for IFR-capable receivers
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. 30 days

    §91.171 — for IFR operations under VOR, a VOR check within the preceding 30 days logged in the aircraft records.

  43. Question 43

    An airplane is due for its annual inspection on July 31. It may be legally flown for hire:

    • A.Until August 30 (30-day grace)
    • B.Not after 2359 local on July 31 — annual inspections do not have a grace period
    • C.Another 100 hours
    • D.Until the next 100-hour inspection
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. Not after 2359 local on July 31 — annual inspections do not have a grace period

    §91.409 — an annual inspection is valid for 12 calendar months. It must be completed within the month it expires; there is NO grace period beyond the end of that calendar month.

  44. Question 44

    A 100-hour inspection may be exceeded by up to 10 hours only:

    • A.Under any circumstance
    • B.To reach a place where the inspection can be done; excess time counts against the NEXT 100-hour
    • C.For emergency use only
    • D.Once per year
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: B. To reach a place where the inspection can be done; excess time counts against the NEXT 100-hour

    §91.409 — the 100-hour inspection may be exceeded by up to 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time is subtracted from the next 100-hour interval.

  45. Question 45

    A private pilot wants to carry passengers at night. They must have logged within the preceding 90 days:

    • A.3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop, each at night, as sole manipulator of an aircraft of the same category, class, and (if a type rating required) type
    • B.3 day takeoffs and landings
    • C.A night flight review
    • D.One night landing to a full stop
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop, each at night, as sole manipulator of an aircraft of the same category, class, and (if a type rating required) type

    §61.57(b). Night currency is separate from day currency and requires full-stop landings (touch-and-goes don't count) during the period 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

  46. Question 46

    Third-class medical duration for a pilot age 40 or older on the date of the exam:

    • A.24 calendar months
    • B.36 calendar months
    • C.60 calendar months
    • D.12 calendar months
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. 24 calendar months

    §61.23(d). Under 40 → 60 calendar months; 40 or over → 24. Expiration is the last day of the calendar month in which it would otherwise expire.

  47. Question 47

    A one-time endorsement is required to act as PIC of a high-performance airplane. High-performance means:

    • A.An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower
    • B.An airplane with retractable gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller
    • C.An airplane above 12,500 lb MTOW
    • D.Any turbocharged airplane
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

    §61.31(f). Complex (gear + flaps + CSP) is a separate endorsement under §61.31(e). Don't conflate the two.

  48. Question 48

    A student pilot's solo cross-country endorsement from an authorized instructor is valid for:

    • A.The specific flight, after the instructor reviews the student's preflight planning and current/forecast weather for that flight
    • B.90 days
    • C.30 days
    • D.As long as the student pilot certificate
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. The specific flight, after the instructor reviews the student's preflight planning and current/forecast weather for that flight

    §61.93(c). Each solo XC requires a specific endorsement for that flight. The general solo endorsement under §61.87/§61.89 is renewed every 90 days.

  49. Question 49

    A private pilot may log pilot-in-command time when they are:

    • A.The sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which they are rated — regardless of who is acting as PIC
    • B.Only when they have paying passengers onboard
    • C.Only when no instructor is aboard
    • D.Only when holding a medical certificate
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. The sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which they are rated — regardless of who is acting as PIC

    §61.51(e). Logging PIC and acting as PIC are different. A private pilot can log PIC while receiving dual instruction from a CFI, who is acting as PIC.

  50. Question 50

    Required instruments for day VFR flight in a powered civil aircraft include (§91.205(b)):

    • A.Airspeed indicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, tachometer each engine, oil pressure, manifold pressure gauge for each altitude (turbocharged/supercharged) engine, temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine, oil temp for each air-cooled engine, fuel gauges, landing gear position (retract), ELT, seat belts — among others
    • B.Only airspeed, altimeter, and compass
    • C.Only the G1000 PFD
    • D.Attitude indicator and directional gyro
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Airspeed indicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, tachometer each engine, oil pressure, manifold pressure gauge for each altitude (turbocharged/supercharged) engine, temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine, oil temp for each air-cooled engine, fuel gauges, landing gear position (retract), ELT, seat belts — among others

    A-TOMATOFLAMES: Airspeed, Tachometer, Oil pressure, Manifold (if needed), Altimeter, Temperature (liquid-cooled), Oil temp, Fuel gauge, Landing gear position (retract), Anti-collision lights (if cert after Mar 11, 1996), Magnetic compass, ELT, Seat belts. Attitude indicator/HI are NOT required for day VFR.

  51. Question 51

    Additional equipment required for night VFR flight beyond the day VFR list (§91.205(c)):

    • A.Fuses (spare) or circuit breakers, Landing light (if for hire), Anti-collision lights, Position lights, Source of electrical power — "FLAPS"
    • B.An ADF receiver
    • C.A transponder with altitude encoding
    • D.Dual navigation radios
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Fuses (spare) or circuit breakers, Landing light (if for hire), Anti-collision lights, Position lights, Source of electrical power — "FLAPS"

    Night VFR = day list + FLAPS: spare Fuses (or CBs), Landing light (if for hire only), Anti-collision lights, Position lights, Source of electrical power.

  52. Question 52

    ELT batteries must be replaced (or recharged, if rechargeable) when:

    • A.The transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or 50% of the useful life of the battery has expired
    • B.Every 30 days
    • C.Every 12 months regardless
    • D.Only during the annual inspection
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. The transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or 50% of the useful life of the battery has expired

    §91.207(c). The ELT inspection itself is required every 12 calendar months under §91.207(d).

  53. Question 53

    §91.103 requires pilots to become familiar with all available information for the flight. For any flight this specifically includes (mnemonic NWKRAFT):

    • A.NOTAMs, Weather reports/forecasts, Known ATC delays, Runway lengths at airports of intended use, Alternates, Fuel requirements, Takeoff/landing distance data
    • B.Only the destination METAR
    • C.Only a visual inspection of the runway
    • D.Nothing beyond the pilot's judgment
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. NOTAMs, Weather reports/forecasts, Known ATC delays, Runway lengths at airports of intended use, Alternates, Fuel requirements, Takeoff/landing distance data

    §91.103 is the preflight-action rule. Memorize the list or you'll miss a PAR item.

  54. Question 54

    Regarding seat belts and shoulder harnesses (§91.107):

    • A.Each person on board must be briefed on how to fasten/unfasten the belt; belts must be worn during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing; shoulder harnesses (if installed) must be worn for takeoff and landing
    • B.Belts are optional after reaching cruise
    • C.Only the pilot is required to wear a belt
    • D.Shoulder harnesses are required only in jets
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Each person on board must be briefed on how to fasten/unfasten the belt; belts must be worn during movement on the surface, takeoff, and landing; shoulder harnesses (if installed) must be worn for takeoff and landing

    §91.107(a)(1)-(3). Shoulder harness must be worn for takeoff/landing if the seat is equipped, unless the person cannot perform required duties with it on.

  55. Question 55

    Right-of-way priority when converging at approximately the same altitude, from most to least right-of-way (§91.113):

    • A.Aircraft in distress → balloon → glider → airship → powered parachute/weight-shift → airplane/rotorcraft (least)
    • B.Airplane > glider > balloon
    • C.Whoever is highest
    • D.The aircraft on the left
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Aircraft in distress → balloon → glider → airship → powered parachute/weight-shift → airplane/rotorcraft (least)

    §91.113(d). Distress beats everything. Among flying machines, the least maneuverable has priority. Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have priority over other engine-driven aircraft.

  56. Question 56

    Aircraft speed limits under §91.117:

    • A.≤250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL; ≤200 KIAS within 4 NM of the primary Class C/D airport at or below 2,500 ft AGL; ≤200 KIAS in airspace underlying Class B or in a VFR corridor through Class B
    • B.250 KIAS everywhere below 10k
    • C.200 KIAS in Class B itself
    • D.No limit below 10,000 ft MSL
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. ≤250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL; ≤200 KIAS within 4 NM of the primary Class C/D airport at or below 2,500 ft AGL; ≤200 KIAS in airspace underlying Class B or in a VFR corridor through Class B

    §91.117. Inside Class B there's no specific 200 KIAS limit beyond the 250/10,000 rule; the 200 KIAS limits apply underneath and around Class B. Many ATC clearances impose slower speeds.

  57. Question 57

    VFR fuel reserves — minimum planning required under §91.151:

    • A.Day: enough fuel to fly to the destination, then 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. Night: 45 minutes
    • B.Day 30 minutes, night 30 minutes
    • C.Day 45 minutes, night 60 minutes
    • D.Whatever the POH specifies
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Day: enough fuel to fly to the destination, then 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. Night: 45 minutes

    §91.151(a). This is a planning requirement. Reaching destination with less than reserve in the tanks is a separate problem (fuel emergency).

  58. Question 58

    Aerobatic flight minimums under §91.303 — you may not perform aerobatics:

    • A.Over any congested area, open-air assembly, in Class B/C/D or Class E at an airport, within 4 NM of an airway, below 1,500 ft AGL, or with visibility less than 3 SM
    • B.Below 500 ft AGL only
    • C.Without a parachute
    • D.On weekends
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Over any congested area, open-air assembly, in Class B/C/D or Class E at an airport, within 4 NM of an airway, below 1,500 ft AGL, or with visibility less than 3 SM

    §91.303. Aerobatic = intentional maneuver with abrupt attitude change, abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration — not necessary for normal flight.

  59. Question 59

    A VFR flight plan filed with Flight Service is:

    • A.Activated after departure (by calling FSS or via EFB) and must be closed on arrival — VFR flight plans are NOT automatically closed the way IFR plans are
    • B.Activated automatically at departure
    • C.Closed automatically on landing
    • D.Required for all VFR flight
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Activated after departure (by calling FSS or via EFB) and must be closed on arrival — VFR flight plans are NOT automatically closed the way IFR plans are

    Failure to close → SAR alert starts 30 min after ETA. Use 1-800-WX-BRIEF, EFB app, or ask ATC to relay the close.

  60. Question 60

    Required inspections for a privately operated airplane (not for hire):

    • A.Annual inspection (every 12 calendar months); transponder check every 24 calendar months; ELT inspection every 12 calendar months; altimeter/static check every 24 calendar months if flown IFR; VOR check every 30 days if flown IFR (§91.171)
    • B.100-hour inspection is always required
    • C.No inspection required
    • D.Daily mechanic inspection
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. Annual inspection (every 12 calendar months); transponder check every 24 calendar months; ELT inspection every 12 calendar months; altimeter/static check every 24 calendar months if flown IFR; VOR check every 30 days if flown IFR (§91.171)

    100-hour inspections (§91.409(b)) are required only for aircraft used for hire, or for flight instruction given for hire in aircraft the instructor provides. Owner-operators otherwise only need the annual.

  61. Question 61

    Supplemental oxygen (§91.211) for the required flight crew in unpressurized aircraft:

    • A.12,500 to 14,000 ft MSL: O2 required for any portion exceeding 30 minutes. Above 14,000 MSL: required at all times. Above 15,000 MSL: O2 must be provided to each occupant
    • B.Above 10,000 MSL always required
    • C.Only above FL250
    • D.Never required in unpressurized aircraft
    Show answer & explanation
    Answer: A. 12,500 to 14,000 ft MSL: O2 required for any portion exceeding 30 minutes. Above 14,000 MSL: required at all times. Above 15,000 MSL: O2 must be provided to each occupant

    Pulse oximeters and portable O2 systems are cheap insurance for long flights at mid-altitudes. Night vision degrades above ~5,000 ft DA; many pilots use O2 above 5,000 ft at night.

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